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And the winner is...

It's a draw! Paul was correct, of course, when he said that salvation is through faith without works and James was correct, of course, when he said that salvation is through faith plus works.

How can they both be correct when they offer opposing views on the same subject? It's simple. Really...it is! It's so simple in fact, that the wise and prudent and the scholars and the infallible church of Rome can't see it.

Abraham was justified by faith without the works of the law and before circumcision and so he was a GENTILE. Therefore, saved Gentiles can rightly be called the "children of Abraham" for just as he was saved through faith WITHOUT the works of the law, so are we.

Abraham was also justified by faith with works, as says James, when he offered up his son Isaac and at which time he was a circumcised HEBREW.

Yikes. This is horrible biblical interpretation. Abraham was never a Gentile. Not by scripture or by word from the Holy Spirit todate. In his time neither Jew nor Gentile existed but a man of God. Hence Abraham was not some kind of Pre-mosiac New Testement Christian, because he was uncercumsized. He was cercumsized because of his faith in God as a seal of righteousness. Hence how could you believe he became a slave to the law or that his faith alone would no longer save him after he was given the seal of righteousness? Your interpretation is heresy and a contradictory lie according to the Word of God.

Also to further hit your heretical view answer me this question. When was Abraham saved? Was he a saved when he was a "Gentile" or a "Jew"? Was he saved when he had "faith without works" or "faith plus works" when according to you he must have died a Jew?

James is correct in saying that salvation is through faith plus keeping the law of good works for he is speaking of the dispensation after the church is gone home to heaven.

Ha ha what did you say? "After we have gone home to heaven"? Can you reference scripture to support this claim? . Where did you get the notion that James was speaking about a future age for the Church? He didn't say this. Infact what use would it do to the present dispensational Church to hear what will come to be if we are still on earth?

He was not speaking about no future church he was speaking about the Church on earth for this is whom his letter was addressed to.

It is the same Abraham who was a Gentile and who was saved through faith plus nothing who was also saved through faith plus good works as a Hebrew and all to illustrate, to those willing to see it, that salvation is NOT "always" the same in every dispensation.

I think Paul would disagree with that. Not one verse in the bible makes a distinction between salvation for the Gentile and Jew. The distinction exist as a result of you miscontruding at verbatum James teachings.

James never disputed faith alone theology or disputed Pauls teachings. He was clearifying what a living faith is and what it looks like.

James proved that faith is ALWAYS accompenied with works. He explains that they work together. So by that explanation it is logical to conclude that faith and works are infact one/consitting of each other, since faith can not be without works and works can not be without faith.

Hence my conclusion is faith and biblical works are the same thing. When Paul said that works alone does not save he said it because he was arguing the counter point that works without hope in God is meaningless to the spirit. Hence some people might say I faith plus works but when does faith EVER exist apart from works? Never!